Baptized Unto John Baptism Need to Be Baptized Again Unto Christ
Whether the baptism of John was from God?
Objection: one. It would seem that the baptism of John was non from God. For nada sacramental that is from God is named later on a mere man: thus the baptism of the New Law is not named subsequently Peter or Paul, but later Christ. Merely that baptism is named later John, according to Mt 21,25: "The baptism of John . . . was it from heaven or from men?" Therefore the baptism of John was not from God.
two. Further, every doctrine that gain from God anew is confirmed by some signs: thus the Lord (Ex 4) gave Moses the ability of working signs; and it is written (He 2,3-4) that our faith "having begun to be declared by the Lord, was confirmed unto us past them that heard Him, God also bearing them witness by signs and wonders." But it is written of John the Baptist (Jn 10,41) that "John did no sign." Therefore it seems that the baptism wherewith he baptized was not from God.
3. Farther, those sacraments which are instituted by God are contained in certain precepts of Holy Scripture. But at that place is no precept of Holy Writ commanding the baptism of John. Therefore information technology seems that it was not from God.
On the contrary Information technology is written (Jn 1,33): "He who sent me to baptize with water said to me: 'He upon whom yard shalt see the Spirit,'" etc.
I respond that 2 things may be considered in the baptism of John---namely, the rite of baptism and the effect of baptism. The rite of baptism was not from men, but from God, who by an interior revelation of the Holy Ghost sent John to baptize. But the result of that baptism was from man, considering information technology effected cipher that man could not accomplish. Wherefore it was not from God alone, except in as far as God works in man.
Reply to Objection: 1. By the baptism of the New Law men are baptized inwardly by the Holy Ghost, and this is achieved by God solitary. But by the baptism of John the body alone was apple-pie by the water. Wherefore it is written (Mt iii,11): "I cognominate you in water; only . . . He shall cognominate you in the Holy Ghost." For this reason the baptism of John was named afterward him, because it effected zilch that he did non accomplish. But the baptism of the New Police is non named afterwards the government minister thereof, considering he does not accomplish its principal effect, which is the in cleansing.
2. The whole didactics and work of John was ordered unto Christ, who, by many miracles confirmed both His own teaching and that of John. Only if John had worked signs, men would have paid equal attention to John and to Christ. Wherefore, in order that men might pay greater attention to Christ, it was not given to John to work a sign. Yet when the Jews asked him why he baptized, he confirmed his role by the authority of Scripture, maxim: "I am the voice of 1 crying in the wilderness," etc. as related, Jn ane,23 (Is forty,3). Moreover, the very austerity of his life was a citation of his office, because, as Chrysostom says, commenting on Matthew (Hom. x in Matth.), "it was wonderful to witness such endurance in a human being body."
3. The baptism of John was intended past God to last only for a curt time, for the reasons given to a higher place (Article [ane]). Therefore information technology was not the discipline of a general commandment fix down in Sacred Writ, but of a certain interior revelation of the Holy Ghost, as stated above.
Whether grace was given in the baptism of John?
Objection: 1. Information technology would seem that grace was given in the baptism of John. For it is written (Mc 1,4): "John was in the desert baptizing and preaching the baptism of penance unto remission of sins." But penance and remission of sins are the effect of grace. Therefore the baptism of John conferred grace.
ii. Farther, those who were nearly to be baptized past John "confessed their sins," as related Mt 3,6 and Mc 1,v. Merely the confession of sins is ordered to their remission, which is effected by grace. Therefore grace was conferred in the baptism of John.
3. Further, the baptism of John was more akin than circumcision to the baptism of Christ. But original sin was remitted through circumcision: considering, equally Bede says (Hom. ten in Circumcis.), "under the Law, circumcision brought the same saving aid to heal the wound of original sin equally baptism is wont to bring now that grace is revealed." Much more, therefore, did the baptism of John effect the remission of sins, which cannot be achieved without grace.
On the opposite It is written (Mt three,11): "I indeed baptize you in water unto penance." Which words Gregory thus expounds in a certain homily (Hom. vii in Evang.): "John baptized, non in the Spirit, merely in water: because he could not forgive sins." Merely grace is given past the Holy Ghost, and past means thereof sins are taken away. Therefore the baptism of John did not confer grace.
I respond that Equally stated above (Article [2], advertizing 2), the whole pedagogy and piece of work of John was in preparation for Christ: but every bit it is the duty of the servant and of the under-craftsman to set the matter for the grade which is accomplished past the caput-craftsman. Now grace was to be conferred on men through Christ, according to Jn one,17: "Grace and truth came through Jesus Christ." Therefore the baptism of John did non confer grace, but simply prepared the manner for grace; and this in iii ways: first, by John'south teaching, which led men to faith in Christ; secondly, past accustoming men to the rite of Christ's baptism; thirdly, by penance, preparing men to receive the effect of Christ's baptism.
Respond to Objection: i. In these words, as Bede says (on Mc one,4), a twofold baptism of penance may be understood. one is that which John conferred by baptizing, which is called "a baptism of penance," etc., past reason of its inducing men to practise penance, and of its being a kind of protestation by which men avowed their purpose of doing penance. The other is the baptism of Christ, past which sins are remitted, and which John could non give, but only preach, proverb: "He will cognominate yous in the Holy Ghost."Or information technology may exist said that he preached the "baptism of penance," i.e. which induced men to practice penance, which penance leads men on to "the remission of sins."Or again, information technology may exist said with Jerome [*Some other author on Mc i (inter op. Hier.)] that "by the baptism of Christ grace is given, past which sins are remitted gratis; and that what is accomplished by the benedict is begun by the bridesman," i.east. past John. Consequently information technology is said that "he baptized and preached the baptism of penance unto remission of sins," not equally though he accomplished this himself, but because he began it by preparing the mode for it.
2. That confession of sins was not fabricated unto the remission of sins, to exist realized immediately through the baptism of John, but to be obtained through subsequent penance and through the baptism of Christ, for which that penance was a preparation.
3. Circumcision was instituted as a remedy for original sin. Whereas the baptism of John was non instituted for this purpose, but was merely in preparation for the baptism of Christ, every bit stated to a higher place; whereas the sacraments attain their effect through the force of their institution.
Whether Christ alone should have been baptized with the baptism of John?
Objection: ane. It would seem that Christ lone should have been baptized with the baptism of John. For, as stated in a higher place (Commodity [ane]), "the reason why John baptized was that Christ might receive baptism," as Augustine says (Super Joan., Tract. 13). Only what is proper to Christ should not be applicable to others. Therefore no others should accept received that baptism.
2. Farther, whoever is baptized either receives something from the baptism or confers something on the baptism. Merely no one could receive anything from the baptism of John, because thereby grace was not conferred, as stated in a higher place (Article [3]). On the other hand, no one could confer anything on baptism salve Christ, who "sanctified the waters past the touch of His nearly pure flesh" [*Mag. Sent. iv, 3]. Therefore information technology seems that Christ solitary should have been baptized with the baptism of John.
three. Further, if others were baptized with that baptism, this was only in social club that they might be prepared for the baptism of Christ: and thus it would seem fitting that the baptism of John should be conferred on all, onetime and young, Gentile and Jew, just as the baptism of Christ. Simply nosotros exercise non read that either children or Gentiles were baptized by the latter; for it is written (Mc one,5) that "in that location went out to him . . . all they of Jerusalem, and were baptized by him." Therefore it seems that Christ alone should have been baptized past John.
On the opposite It is written (Lc iii,21): "It came to pass, when all the people were baptized, that Jesus besides being baptized and praying, heaven was opened."
I answer that For two reasons information technology behooved others besides Christ to be baptized with the baptism of John. First, as Augustine says (Super Joan., Tract. iv, five), "if Christ alone had been baptized with the baptism of John, some would have said that John's baptism, with which Christ was baptized, was more than fantabulous than that of Christ, with which others are baptized."Secondly, because, as above stated, it behooved others to be prepared by John's baptism for the baptism of Christ.
Reply to Objection: 1. The baptism of John was instituted non only that Christ might be baptized, simply besides for other reasons, as stated higher up (Article [i]). And yet, even if it were instituted but in order that Christ might exist baptized therewith, it was still necessary for others to receive this baptism, in gild to avoid the objection mentioned above.
two. Others who approached to be baptized by John could not, indeed, confer anything on his baptism: yet neither did they receive annihilation therefrom, salve only the sign of penance.
iii. This was the baptism of "penance," for which children were not suited; wherefore they were non baptized therewith. But to bring the nations into the mode of salvation was reserved to Christ solitary, who is the "expectation of the nations," as we read Gn 49,10. Indeed, Christ forbade the apostles to preach the Gospel to the Gentiles before His Passion and Resurrection. Much less fitting, therefore, was it for the Gentiles to be baptized by John.
Whether John's baptism should accept ceased after Christ was baptized?
Objection: i. Information technology would seem that John's baptism should have ceased subsequently Christ was baptized. For it is written (Jn 1,31): "That He may be fabricated manifest in Israel, therefore am I come baptizing in water." Just when Christ had been baptized, He was made sufficiently manifest, both by the testimony of John and by the dove coming downwardly upon Him, and over again by the voice of the Father bearing witness to Him. Therefore information technology seems that John's baptism should not have endured thereafter.
two. Further, Augustine says (Super Joan., Tract. 4): "Christ was baptized, and John's baptism ceased to avail." Therefore it seems that, later on Christ's baptism, John should non have continued to baptize.
3. Further, John'south baptism prepared the fashion for Christ'south. But Christ's baptism began as shortly as He had been baptized; because "by the touch of His most pure flesh He endowed the waters with a regenerating virtue," as Bede asserts (Mag. Sent. 4, 3). Therefore it seems that John's baptism ceased when Christ had been baptized.
On the contrary It is written (Jn 3,22-23): "Jesus . . . came into the land of Judea . . . and baptized: and John also was baptizing." Just Christ did not baptize earlier being baptized. Therefore it seems that John continued to baptize after Christ had been baptized.
I answer that Information technology was not fitting for the baptism of John to finish when Christ had been baptized. Showtime, because, as Chrysostom says (Hom. xxix in Joan.), "if John had ceased to baptize" when Christ had been baptized, "men would think that he was moved past jealousy or anger." Secondly, if he had ceased to baptize when Christ baptized, "he would have given His disciples a motive for yet greater envy." Thirdly, because, by continuing to cognominate, "he sent his hearers to Christ" (Hom. xxix in Joan.). Fourthly, because, as Bede [*Scot. Erig. Comment. in Joan.] says, "there all the same remained a shadow of the Onetime Police: nor should the precursor withdraw until the truth be made manifest."
Reply to Objection: 1. When Christ was baptized, He was non as yet fully manifested: consequently at that place was still need for John to continue baptizing.
two. The baptism of John ceased subsequently Christ had been baptized, not immediately, just when the former was bandage into prison. Thus Chrysostom says (Hom. xxix in Joan.): "I consider that John'southward death was immune to take place, and that Christ'south preaching began in a great mensurate afterward John had died, so that the undivided fidelity of the multitude was transferred to Christ, and there was no further motive for the divergence of opinions concerning both of them."
three. John's baptism prepared the way non simply for Christ to be baptized, but as well for others to approach to Christ'south baptism: and this did not take identify as shortly as Christ was baptized.
Whether those who had been baptized with John's baptism had to be baptized with the baptism of Christ?
Objection: one. It would seem that those who had been baptized with John's baptism had not to be baptized with the baptism of Christ. For John was not less than the apostles, since of him is it written (Mt xi,xi): "There hath not risen among them that are born of women a greater than John the Baptist." Merely those who were baptized by the apostles were not baptized over again, but only received the imposition of hands; for it is written (Air-conditioning 8,sixteen-17) that some were "only baptized" by Philip "in the name of the Lord Jesus": then the apostles---namely, Peter and John---"laid their hands upon them, and they received the Holy Ghost." Therefore information technology seems that those who had been baptized by John had not to be baptized with the baptism of Christ.
2. Further, the apostles were baptized with John's baptism, since some of them were his disciples, as is clear from Jn i,37. Merely the apostles do not seem to have been baptized with the baptism of Christ: for information technology is written (Jn 4,2) that "Jesus did not cognominate, but His disciples." Therefore it seems that those who had been baptized with John's baptism had non to exist baptized with the baptism of Christ.
3. Further, he who is baptized is less than he who baptizes. Merely we are not told that John himself was baptized with the baptism of Christ. Therefore much less did those who had been baptized by John demand to receive the baptism of Christ.
4. Further, it is written (Ac xix,one-5) that "Paul . . . found sure disciples; and he said to them: Have y'all received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? But they said to him: Nosotros take non so much as heard whether there exist a Holy Ghost. And he said: In what and then were you baptized? Who said: In John'south baptism." Wherefore "they were" once more "baptized in the name of our [Vulg.: 'the'] Lord Jesus Christ." Hence it seems that they needed to be baptized again, because they did not know of the Holy Ghost: as Jerome says on Joel ii:28 and in an epistle (lxix De Viro unius uxoris), and likewise Ambrose (De Spiritu Sancto). But some were baptized with John's baptism who had full knowledge of the Trinity. Therefore these had no need to be baptized again with Christ's baptism.
5. Further, on Rm 10,viii, "This is the word of organized religion, which we preach," the gloss of Augustine says: "Whence this virtue in the water, that it touches the torso and cleanses the heart, salvage by the efficacy of the word, not because it is uttered, merely considering it is believed?" Whence information technology is articulate that the virtue of baptism depends on organized religion. But the course of John's baptism signified the religion in which we are baptized; for Paul says (Ac nineteen,four): "John baptized the people with the baptism of penance, saying: That they should believe in Him who was to come later on him---that is to say, in Jesus." Therefore it seems that those who had been baptized with John's baptism had no need to exist baptized again with the baptism of Christ.
On the contrary Augustine says (Super Joan., Tract. 5): "Those who were baptized with John'southward baptism needed to be baptized with the baptism of our Lord."
I respond that According to the stance of the Master (Sent. 4, D, two), "those who had been baptized past John without knowing of the existence of the Holy Ghost, and who based their hopes on his baptism, were afterwards baptized with the baptism of Christ: but those who did not base of operations their promise on John'south baptism, and who believed in the Begetter, Son, and Holy Ghost, were not baptized later, but received the Holy Ghost by the imposition of hands fabricated over them by the apostles."And this, indeed, is true equally to the first role, and is confirmed past many authorities. But equally to the second office, the assertion is altogether unreasonable. Starting time, because John's baptism neither conferred grace nor imprinted a character, but was simply "in water," every bit he says himself (Mt 3,xi). Wherefore the faith or hope which the person baptized had in Christ could non supply this defect. Secondly, because, when in a sacrament, that is omitted which belongs of necessity to the sacrament, not only must the omission exist supplied, but the whole must be entirely renewed. Now, information technology belongs of necessity to Christ's baptism that it be given non only in water, but also in the Holy Ghost, according to Jn 3,5: "Unless a human be built-in of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God." Wherefore in the case of those who had been baptized with John'southward baptism in water only, non merely had the omission to be supplied by giving them the Holy Ghost by the imposition of hands, merely they had to be baptized wholly anew "in water and the Holy Ghost."
Respond to Objection: 1. As Augustine says (Super Joan., Tract. v): "Later on John, baptism was administered, and the reason why was because he gave non Christ's baptism, but his own . . . That which Peter gave . . . and if whatsoever were given by Judas, that was Christ'southward. And therefore if Judas baptized anyone, however were they not rebaptized . . . For the baptism corresponds with him past whose authority it is given, not with him by whose ministry it is given." For the same reason those who were baptized by the deacon Philip, who gave the baptism of Christ, were not baptized again, just received the imposition of easily by the apostles, only every bit those who are baptized past priests are confirmed by bishops.
ii. As Augustine says to Seleucianus (Ep. cclxv), "nosotros deem that Christ's disciples were baptized either with John'south baptism, as some maintain, or with Christ'due south baptism, which is more likely. For He would not fail to administer baptism so as to have baptized servants through whom He baptized others, since He did not fail in His apprehensive service to wash their feet."
3. As Chrysostom says (Hom. iv in Matth. [*From the supposititious Opus Imperfectum]): "Since, when John said, 'I ought to exist baptized by Thee,' Christ answered, 'Endure it to exist and so now': information technology follows that later Christ did baptize John." Moreover, he asserts that "this is distinctly fix down in some of the counterfeit books." At any rate, it is certain, as Jerome says on Mt 3,13, that, "every bit Christ was baptized in water past John, then had John to exist baptized in the Spirit by Christ."
4. The reason why these persons were baptized afterwards being baptized by John was non merely because they knew not of the Holy Ghost, merely also because they had not received the baptism of Christ.
5. As Augustine says (Contra Faust. nineteen), our sacraments are signs of nowadays grace, whereas the sacraments of the Old Law were signs of future grace. Wherefore the very fact that John baptized in the proper noun of i who was to come, shows that he did non give the baptism of Christ, which is a sacrament of the New Police.
Q39: OF THE BAPTIZING OF CHRIST (EIGHT Manufactures)
We have now to consider the baptizing of Christ, concerning which there are eight points of inquiry:
(1) Whether Christ should have been baptized?
(ii) Whether He should take been baptized with the baptism of John?
(3) Of the fourth dimension when He was baptized;
(iv) Of the place;
(5) Of the heavens being opened unto Him;
(half dozen) Of the bogeyman of the Holy Ghost under the form of a pigeon;
(7) Whether that dove was a real animal?
(8) Of the vocalisation of the Father witnessing unto Him.
Whether information technology was fitting that Christ should be baptized?
Objection: one. It would seem that information technology was non fitting for Christ to exist baptized. For to exist baptized is to exist washed. Merely information technology was not plumbing fixtures for Christ to be washed, since there was no uncleanness in Him. Therefore it seems unfitting for Christ to be baptized.
2. Farther, Christ was circumcised in order to fulfil the law. But baptism was not prescribed by the law. Therefore He should not have been baptized.
iii. Farther, the first mover in every genus is unmoved in regard to that move; thus the heaven, which is the first cause of amending, is unalterable. But Christ is the kickoff principle of baptism, according to Jn 1,33: "He upon whom g shalt encounter the Spirit descending and remaining upon Him, He it is that baptizeth." Therefore it was unfitting for Christ to be baptized.
On the contrary Information technology is written (Mt 3,13) that "Jesus cometh from Galilee to the Hashemite kingdom of jordan, unto John, to exist baptized by him."
I reply that It was fitting for Christ to be baptized. Kickoff, because, as Ambrose says on Lc 3,21: "Our Lord was baptized because He wished, non to exist cleansed, just to cleanse the waters, that, existence purified by the flesh of Christ that knew no sin, they might accept the virtue of baptism"; and, every bit Chrysostom says (Hom. iv in Matth.), "that He might bequeath the sanctified waters to those who were to exist baptized later on." Secondly, as Chrysostom says (Hom. four in Matth.), "although Christ was non a sinner, yet did He take a sinful nature and 'the likeness of sinful flesh.' Wherefore, though He needed not baptism for His own sake, yet carnal nature in others had need thereof." And, as Gregory Nazianzen says (Orat. xxxix) "Christ was baptized that He might plunge the old Adam entirely in the h2o." Thirdly, He wished to be baptized, equally Augustine says in a sermon on the Epiphany (cxxxvi), "considering He wished to do what He had commanded all to do." And this is what He ways past saying: "And so it becometh u.s. to fulfil all justice" (Mt 3,15). For, as Ambrose says (on Lc 3,21), "this is justice, to do first thyself that which chiliad wishest another to do, and so encourage others past thy example."
Reply to Objection: ane. Christ was baptized, not that He might be cleansed, but that He might cleanse, as stated above.
2. It was plumbing equipment that Christ should not only fulfil what was prescribed by the Old Constabulary, but likewise begin what appertained to the New Law. Therefore He wished not only to exist circumcised, just also to be baptized.
3. Christ is the first principle of baptism's spiritual effect. Unto this He was not baptized, but but in water.
Whether information technology was plumbing fixtures for Christ to exist baptized with John'south baptism?
Objection: 1. It would seem that it was unfitting for Christ to exist baptized with John'south baptism. For John'southward baptism was the "baptism of penance." Merely penance is unbecoming to Christ, since He had no sin. Therefore it seems that He should non have been baptized with John'southward baptism.
ii. Farther, John'south baptism, every bit Chrysostom says (Hom. de Bapt. Christi), "was a mean between the baptism of the Jews and that of Christ." Just "the mean savors of the nature of the extremes" (Aristotle, De Partib. Animate being.). Since, therefore, Christ was not baptized with the Jewish baptism, nor yet with His own, on the same grounds He should not have been baptized with the baptism of John.
3. Further, whatsoever is best in human things should be ascribed to Christ. But John's baptism does not hold the kickoff place among baptisms. Therefore it was not fitting for Christ to exist baptized with John's baptism.
On the contrary It is written (Mt 3,13) that "Jesus cometh to the Jordan, unto John, to be baptized by him."
I respond that As Augustine says (Super Joan., Tract. xiii): "Afterward existence baptized, the Lord baptized, not with that baptism wherewith He was baptized." Wherefore, since He Himself baptized with His ain baptism, it follows that He was not baptized with His own, but with John's baptism. And this was befitting: first, because John's baptism was peculiar in this, that he baptized, not in the Spirit, just only "in water"; while Christ did not demand spiritual baptism, since He was filled with the grace of the Holy Ghost from the beginning of His formulation, as we have made clear above (Question [34], Article [1]). And this is the reason given by Chrysostom (Hom. de Bapt. Christi). Secondly, every bit Bede says on Mc 1,9, He was baptized with the baptism of John, that, "past being thus baptized, He might show His approval of John'southward baptism." Thirdly, every bit Gregory Nazianzen says (Orat. xxxix), "by going to John to be baptized by him, He sanctified baptism."
Respond to Objection: 1. As stated above (Article [1]), Christ wished to be baptized in order by His case to atomic number 82 u.s.a. to baptism. And so, in order that He might pb united states of america thereto more efficaciously, He wished to be baptized with a baptism which He clearly needed non, that men who needed it might arroyo unto it. Wherefore Ambrose says on Lc 3,21: "Allow none pass up the laver of grace, since Christ did not pass up the laver of penance."
2. The Jewish baptism prescribed by the law was but figurative, whereas John'south baptism, in a measure, was real, inasmuch as it induced men to refrain from sin; but Christ's baptism is efficacious unto the remission of sin and the conferring of grace. Now Christ needed neither the remission of sin, which was non in Him, nor the bestowal of grace, with which He was filled. Moreover, since He is "the Truth," it was not fitting that He should receive that which was no more than a effigy. Consequently it was more plumbing equipment that He should receive the intermediate baptism than ane of the extremes.
iii. Baptism is a spiritual remedy. Now, the more than perfect a thing is, the less remedy does it need. Consequently, from the very fact that Christ is most perfect, it follows that information technology was fitting that He should not receive the most perfect baptism: just equally one who is good for you does not need a strong medicine.
Whether Christ was baptized at a plumbing fixtures time?
Objection: ane. Information technology would seem that Christ was baptized at an unfitting time. For Christ was baptized in order that He might lead others to baptism by His example. But it is commendable that the faithful of Christ should be baptized, not just earlier their thirtieth year, simply even in infancy. Therefore information technology seems that Christ should not have been baptized at the age of thirty.
2. Further, nosotros do not read that Christ taught or worked miracles earlier beingness baptized. But information technology would accept been more profitable to the world if He had taught for a longer time, beginning at the age of twenty, or even before. Therefore information technology seems that Christ, who came for human'south turn a profit, should have been baptized before His thirtieth twelvemonth.
3. Further, the sign of wisdom infused by God should accept been particularly manifest in Christ. Merely in the case of Daniel this was manifested at the time of his boyhood; according to : "The Lord raised up the holy spirit of a young boy, whose name was Daniel." Much more than, therefore, should Christ have been baptized or take taught in His boyhood.
4. Further, John's baptism was ordered to that of Christ every bit to its stop. But "the end is first in intention and last in execution." Therefore He should have been baptized past John either before all the others, or after them.
On the contrary It is written (Lc 3,21): "Information technology came to pass, when all the people were baptized, that Jesus likewise being baptized, and praying;" and further on (Lc iii,23): "And Jesus Himself was showtime about the age of thirty years."
I answer that Christ was fittingly baptized in His thirtieth twelvemonth. First, because Christ was baptized every bit though for the reason that He was near forthwith to begin to teach and preach: for which purpose perfect age is required, such as is the age of thirty. Thus we read (Gn 41,46) that "Joseph was xxx" years onetime when he undertook the authorities of Egypt. In like manner we read (2R v,iv) that "David was xxx years old when he began to reign." Again, Ezechiel began to prophesy in "his thirtieth yr," as we read Ez 1,1.Secondly, because, as Chrysostom says (Hom. x in Matth.), "the constabulary was about to pass away later Christ'south baptism: wherefore Christ came to be baptized at this age which admits of all sins; in order that by His observing the constabulary, no one might say that considering He Himself could not fulfil it, He did away with it."Thirdly, because by Christ'south beingness baptized at the perfect age, we are given to sympathise that baptism brings forth perfect men, according to Ep 4,13: "Until we all meet into the unity of faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect homo, unto the measure of the historic period of the fulness of Christ." Hence the very property of the number seems to point to this. For thirty is production of iii and 10: and by the number three is implied organized religion in the Trinity, while 10 signifies the fulfilment of the commandments of the Law: in which ii things the perfection of Christian life consists.
Respond to Objection: i. As Gregory Nazianzen says (Orat. forty), Christ was baptized, non "equally though He needed to be cleansed, or as though some peril threatened Him if He delayed to be baptized. Just no small danger besets any other man who departs from this life without being clothed with the garment of incorruptibility"---namely, grace. And though it be a good affair to remain clean after baptism, "nevertheless is it yet better," equally he says, "to exist slightly sullied at present then than to be altogether deprived of grace."
2. The profit which accrues to men from Christ is chiefly through faith and humility: to both of which He conduced by commencement to teach non in His boyhood or youth, simply at the perfect age. To religion, because in this style His human nature is shown to be real, by its making actual progress with the advance of time; and lest this progress should be deemed imaginary, He did non wish to show His wisdom and power before His body had reached the perfect age: to humility, lest anyone should presume to govern or teach others before attaining to perfect age.
3. Christ was set earlier men every bit an example to all. Wherefore it behooved that to exist shown forth in Him, which is condign to all according to the common law---namely, that He should teach later reaching the perfect historic period. Simply, as Gregory Nazianzen says (Orat. xxxix), that which seldom occurs is non the law of the Church; as "neither does 1 eat brand the bound." For by special impunity, in accordance with the ruling of Divine wisdom, it has been granted to some, reverse to the common constabulary, to do the functions of governing or teaching. such every bit Solomon, Daniel, and Jeremias.
four. It was not fitting that Christ should exist baptized by John either earlier or subsequently all others. Because, equally Chrysostom says (Hom. four in Matth. [*From the supposititious Opus Imperfectum]), for this was Christ baptized, "that He might confirm the preaching and the baptism of John, and that John might bear witness to Him." Now, men would not accept had faith in John'due south testimony except afterwards many had been baptized by him. Consequently information technology was not plumbing equipment that John should baptize Him earlier baptizing anyone else. In like manner, neither was information technology fitting that he should baptize Him final. For as he (Chrysostom) says in the same passage: "Every bit the light of the lord's day does non wait for the setting of the morning star, but comes forth while the latter is still above the horizon, and past its brilliance dims its shining: so Christ did not wait till John had run his course, just appeared while he was yet teaching and baptizing."
Whether Christ should have been baptized in the Jordan?
Objection: one. It would seem that Christ should not have been baptized in the Hashemite kingdom of jordan. For the reality should correspond to the figure. But baptism was prefigured in the crossing of the Red Sea, where the Egyptians were drowned, just as our sins are blotted out in baptism. Therefore information technology seems that Christ should rather accept been baptized in the sea than in the river Jordan.
ii. Further, "Hashemite kingdom of jordan" is interpreted a "going downward." Simply past baptism a homo goes upwards rather than down: wherefore it is written (Mt 3,xvi) that "Jesus existence baptized, forthwith came up [Douay: 'out'] from the water." Therefore it seems unfitting that Christ should be baptized in the Jordan.
3. Further, while the children of State of israel were crossing, the waters of the Jordan "were turned back," as information technology is related Jos. 4, and every bit it is written Ps 113,3 Ps 113,5. Merely those who are baptized become forward, non back. Therefore it was not plumbing equipment that Christ should be baptized in the Jordan.
On the opposite It is written (Mc 1,9) that "Jesus was baptized past John in the Jordan."
I respond that It was through the river Jordan that the children of Israel entered into the land of promise. Now, this is the prerogative of Christ's baptism over all other baptisms: that it is the entrance to the kingdom of God, which is signified by the land of promise; wherefore it is said (Jn 3,5): "Unless a human be born once more of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God." To this also is to be referred the dividing of the water of the Jordan by Elias, who was to be snatched up into heaven in a fiery chariot, as it is related 2R two: because, to wit, the approach to heaven is laid open past the burn down of the Holy Ghost, to those who pass through the waters of baptism. Therefore it was fitting that Christ should be baptized in the Jordan.
Reply to Objection: i. The crossing of the Ruby-red Sea foreshadowed baptism in this---that baptism washes away sin: whereas the crossing of the Hashemite kingdom of jordan foreshadows it in this---that information technology opens the gate to the heavenly kingdom: and this is the principal effect of baptism, and achieved through Christ alone. And therefore it was fitting that Christ should be baptized in the Jordan rather than in the sea.
2. In baptism we "become up" past advancing in grace: for which nosotros need to "go down" by humility, according to Jc 4,vi: "He giveth grace to the humble." And to this "going downwards" must the proper name of the Jordan be referred.
three. Every bit Augustine says in a sermon for the Epiphany (x): "Equally of yore the waters of the Jordan were held back, and so now, when Christ was baptized, the torrent of sin was held back." Or else this may signify that against the downwards flow of the waters the river of blessings flowed up.
Source: http://www.clerus.org/bibliaclerusonline/en/e25.htm
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